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243 CMR BOARD OF REGISTRATION IN MEDICINE

 

1.00:    DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS FOR PHYSICIANS

Section

1.01:    Scope and Construction of Rules

1.02:    General Provisions

1.03:    Dispositions of Complaints and Statutory Reports

1.04:    Adjudicatory Hearing

1.05:    Final Decision and Order and Miscellaneous Provisions

 

1.01:    Scope and Construction of Rules

  (1)   Procedure Governed.  243 CMR 1.00 governs the disposition of matters relating to the practice of medicine by any person holding or having held a certificate of registration issued by the Board of Registration in Medicine under M.G.L. c. 112, §§ 2 through 9B, and the conduct of adjudicatory hearings by the Board.  243 CMR 1.00 is based on the principle of fundamental fairness to physicians and patients and shall be construed to secure a speedy and just disposition.  From time to time, the Board may issue standing orders consistent with these rules and the Standard Adjudicatory Rules, 801 CMR 1.00.

     (2)   Definitions.

Adjudicatory hearing:  a formal administrative hearing conducted pursuant to M.G.L. c. 30A.

Board:  the Board of Registration in Medicine, including, but not limited to, its Data Repository/Data Management Unit, Disciplinary Unit, Patient Care Assessment Unit, Legal Unit, Licensing and Examining Unit, and its agents and employees.

Complaint:  a communication filed with the Board which charges a licensee with misconduct.  A "Statutory Report" is not a "complaint"; see 243 CMR 1.03(14).

Informal:  not subject to strict procedural or evidentiary rules.

Licensee:  a person holding or having held any type of license issued pursuant to M.G.L. c. 112, §§ 2 through 9B.

Party:  a respondent, associate prosecutor representing the disciplinary unit, or intervenor in an adjudicatory proceeding pursuant to 801 CMR 1.01(9).

Respondent:  the licensee named in a Statement of Allegations.

Statement of Allegations:  a paper served by the Board upon a licensee ordering the licensee to appear before the Board for an adjudicatory proceeding and show cause why the licensee should not be disciplined; a "Statement of Allegations" is an "Order to Show Cause" within the meaning of 801 CMR 1.01(6)(d).

 

1.02:    General Provisions

      (1)   Communications.  All written correspondence should be addressed to and filed with the Board of Registration in Medicine, 10 West Street, Third Floor, Boston, Massachusetts 02111.*

      (2) (a)   Service.  The Board shall provide notice of its actions in accordance with the Standard Adjudicatory Rules, 801 CMR 1.01(4)(b) and (5)(f), or otherwise with reasonable attempts at in-hand service, unless the Respondent otherwise has actual notice of the Board's action.  Where 243 CMR 1.00 provides that the Board must notify parties, service may be made by first class mail.  A notice of appearance on behalf of a Respondent shall be deemed an agreement to accept service of any document on behalf of the Respondent, including a Final Decision and Order of the Board.  When a Hearing Officer has jurisdiction over an adjudicatory proceeding, proper service by the Respondent includes filing copies of all papers and exhibits with:

           1.          The Board, care of its General Counsel;

           2.          The Hearing Officer assigned to the adjudicatory proceeding; and

           3.          The Associate Prosecutor assigned to the adjudicators proceeding. All papers served must be accompanied by a certificate of service.

        (b) Notice to Board Members. A Respondent (or her representative) and other persons shall not engage in ex parte communications with individual Board members regarding a disciplinary proceeding. Communications to Board members regarding disciplinary proceedings shall be in writing and directed to Board members as follows: Eight copies to the Executive Director, one copy to the General Counsel, and one copy to the Chief of the Disciplinary Unit.

     (3) Date of Receipt. Communications are deemed received on the date of actual receipt by the Board.

     (4) Computation of Time. The Board shall compute time in accordance with 801 CMR 1.01(4)(c).

     (5) Extension of Time. The Board in its discretion may extend any time limit prescribed or allowed by 243 CMR 1.00.

     (6) Identification and Signature: Paper Size. All papers filed with the Board in the course of a disciplinary proceeding must contain the name, address, and telephone number of the party making the filing and must be signed by either the party or an authorized representative. Paper size shall be 8 ½” by 11".

     (7) Decisions by the Board: Quorum. Unless 243 CMR 1.00 provides otherwise, a majority of members present and voting at a Board meeting shall make all decisions and the Board shall record its decisions in the minutes of its meetings. A quorum is a majority of the Board, excluding vacancies.

     (8) Availability of Board Records to the Public.

        (a) The availability of the Board's records to the public is governed by the provisions of the Public Records Law, M.G.L. c. 66, § 10, and M.G.L. c. 4, § 7, clause 26, as limited by the confidentiality provisions of M.G.L. c. 112, §§ 5 through 5I and 243 CMR. A file or some portion of it is not a public record if the Board determines that disclosure may constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, prejudice the effectiveness of law enforcement efforts (if the records were necessarily compiled out of public view), violate any provision of state or federal law, or if the records are otherwise legally exempt from disclosure.

        (b) Before the Board issues a Statement of Allegations, dismisses a complaint, or takes other final action, the Board's records concerning a disciplinary matter are confidential.

       (c) The Board's records of disciplinary matters, as limited by 243 CMR 1.02(8)(a) and (b), include the following:

           1. Closed complaint files, which contain the complaint and other information in matters which have been dismissed or otherwise resolved without adjudication, are public records. The name or a complainant or patient and relevant medical records shall be disclosed to the Respondent, but this information is otherwise confidential. The names of reviewers and the contents of complaint reviews shall be confidential.

           2. Disciplinary Unit files, which contain portions of complaint files (and related confidential files) as well as papers related to adjudicatory proceedings and attorney work product, are not public records and are confidential.

           3. The Board's files, which contain each paper filed with the Board in connection with an adjudicatory proceeding, are public records, unless otherwise impounded or placed under seal by the Hearing Officer or the Board.

           4. Peer review information and records shall remain confidential, to the extent allowable under M.G.L. c.  111, § 204 and 243 CMR 3.04, unless introduced into evidence in an adjudicatory proceeding.

           5. Records of any Board unit's review and investigation of statutory reports, consistent with 243 CMR 1.03(14); are not public records and are confidential.

           6. Closed anonymous complaints, which are determined to be frivolous or lacking in either legal merit or factual basis, consistent with 243 CMR 1.03(3)(a); are not public records and are confidential.

        (d) Communications or complaints reviewed by the Complaint Committee prior to August 21, 1987 and not docketed for reasons other than the criteria set forth in 243 CMR 1.03(3)(a), shall be made available to the public as if they were closed complaint files under 243 CMR 1.02(8)(c)1., whether or not such documents were previously considered to be confidential Board records, unless release is otherwise limited by law or regulations.

        (9) Public Nature of Board Meetings Under 243 CMR 1.00.

        (a) All meetings of the Board are open to the public to the extent required by M.G.L. c. 30A, §11A.

        (b) As provided by M.G.L. c. 30A, § 11A, a Board meeting held for the purpose of making a decision required in an adjudicatory proceeding is not open to the public.  Evidentiary hearings before individual hearing officers are generally open to the public, but the Board may carry out its functions under 243 CMR 1.00 in closed session if these functions effect an individual licensee or patient, the licensee or patient requests that the Board function in closed session, and the Board or hearing officer determines that functioning in closed session would be consistent with law and in the public interest.

      (10) Conditional Privilege of Communications with the Board.

     All communications with the Board charging misconduct, or reporting or providing information to the Board pursuant to M.G.L. c. 112, §§ 5 through 5I, or assisting the Board in any manner in discharging its duties and functions, are privileged, and a person making a communication is privileged from liability based upon the communication unless the person makes the communication in bad faith or for a malicious reason. This limitation on liability is established by M.G.L.  c. 112, §§  5 and 5G(b).

     (11) State or Federal Agencies, Boards or Institutions Designated to Receive Investigative Records or Confidential Information. Pursuant to M.G.L. c. 112, § 5, the Board will review written requests for investigative records or other confidential information from the following agencies which are hereby designated to receive, upon Board approval, such information consistent with the Fair Information Practices Act ("FIPA"), M.G.L. c. 66A:

        (a) Massachusetts Department of the Attorney General;

        (b) Offices of the Massachusetts District Attorneys;

        (c) Massachusetts Municipal Police Departments;

        (d) Massachusetts State Police;

        (e) Federal Trade Commission;

        (f) Office of the United States Attorney;

        (g) U.S. Postal Inspector,

        (h) U.S. Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement Administration, and Federal Bureau of Investigation;

        (i) Division of Registration;

        (j) All other state Medical Boards;

        (k) The Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States, Inc.;

        (l) Division of Insurance and the Insurance Rating Bureau;

        (m) Massachusetts Health Data Consortium, Inc.;

        (n) Department of Public Health;

        (o) Massachusetts Department of Revenue;

        (p) U.S. Internal Revenue Service;

        (q) Office of Chief Medical Examiner;

        (r) Capitol Police;

        (s) U.S. Department of Health & Human Services, Office of the Inspector General;

        (t) Insurance Fraud Bureau of Massachusetts.

        (u) Department of Industrial Accidents.

        (v) Division of Medical Assistance, Executive Office of Health and Human Services.

All recipients of confidential information designated by 240 CMR 1.00 shall preserve the confidentiality of such data and make it available to the data subject, to the extent such access is required by FIPA.

     (12) Membership of Committees. The Board may establish committees of its members to assist in accomplishing its responsibilities. The Board may designate former members for assignment to these committees; however, at least one member of each committee shall be a current member of the Board.

 

1.03:    Disposition of Complaints and Statutory Reports.

      (1) Initiation. Any person, organization, or member of the Board may make a complaint to the Board which charges a licensee with misconduct. A complaint may be filed in any form. The Board, in its discretion, may investigate anonymous complaints.

      (2) Complaint Committee. The Board may establish a committee known as the Complaint Committee to review complaints charging a licensee with misconduct. If the Committee or a Board Investigator determines that a communication does not relate to any of the matters set forth in 243 CMR 1.03(5), the committee or the investigator may refer the communication to the proper authority or regulatory agency.

      (3)(a) Preliminary Investigation. A Board Investigator shall conduct such preliminary investigation, including a request for answer from the licensee, as is necessary to allow the Complaint Committee to determine whether a complaint is frivolous or lacking in either merit or factual basis. If, after a preliminary investigation of an anonymous complaint, the investigator determines that the anonymous complaint is frivolous or lacking in either merit or factual basis, the anonymous complaint shall not be docketed, shall be filed in a general correspondence file, and shall remain confidential.

        (b) Subsequent Inquiry, Investigation. After receipt and review of a complaint, if the Complaint Committee determines that the complaint is frivolous or lacking in either legal merit or factual basis, it may close the complaint. The Committee shall notify the person who made the communication of its determination and the reasons for it.  As to other complaints, the Committee shall conduct, or cause to be conducted, any reasonable inquiry or investigation it deems necessary to determine the truth and validity of the allegations set forth in the complaint.

        (4) Conference. To facilitate disposition, the Board or the Complaint Committee may request any person to attend a conference at any time prior to the commencement of an adjudicatory proceeding. The Board or Committee shall give timely notice of the conference, and this notice must include either a reference to the complaint or a statement of the nature of the issues to be discussed.

        (5) Grounds for Complaint

        (a) Specific Grounds for Complaints Against Physicians. A complaint against a physician must allege that a licensee is practicing medicine in violation of law, regulations, or good and accepted medical practice and may be founded on any of the following:

           1. Fraudulent procurement of his/her certificate of registration or its renewal;

           2. Commitment of an offense against any provision of the laws of the Commonwealth relating to the practice of medicine, or any rule or regulation adopted thereunder;

           3. Conduct which places into question the physician's competence to practice medicine, including but not limited to gross misconduct in the practice of medicine, or practicing medicine fraudulently, or beyond its authorized scope, or with gross incompetence, or with gross negligence on a particular occasion or negligence on repeated occasions;

           4. Practicing medicine while the ability to practice is impaired by alcohol, drugs, physical disability or mental instability;

           5. Being habitually drunk or being or having been addicted to, dependent on, or a habitual user of narcotics, barbiturates, amphetamines, hallucinogens, or other drugs having similar effects;

           6. Knowingly permitting, aiding or abetting an unlicensed person to perform activities requiring a license.

           7. Conviction of any crime;

           8. Continuing to practice while his/her registration is lapsed, suspended, or revoked;

           9. Being insane;

           10. Practicing medicine deceitfully, or engaging in conduct, which has the capacity to deceive or defraud.

           11. Violation of any rule or regulation of the Board;

           12.   Having been disciplined in another jurisdiction in any way by the proper licensing authority for reasons substantially the same as those set forth in M.G.L. c.  112, § 5 or 243 CMR 1.03(5);

           13.   Violation of 243 CMR 2.07(15);

           14.   Cheating on or attempting to compromise the integrity of any medical licensing examination;

           15.   Failure to report to the Board, within the time period provided by law or regulation, any disciplinary action taken against the licensee by another licensing jurisdiction (United States or foreign), by any health care institution, by any professional or medical society or association, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct substantially the same as acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for complaint as defined in this section;

           16.   Failure to respond to a subpoena or to furnish the Board, its investigators or representatives, documents, information or testimony to which the Board is legally entitled;

           17.   Malpractice within the meaning of M.G.L. c. 112, § 61;

           18.   Misconduct in the practice of medicine.

               (b) Other Grounds for Complaints Against Physicians.

Nothing herein shall limit the Board's adoption of policies and grounds for discipline through adjudication as well as through rule-making.

           (6)  Docket.  The Board shall assign a docket number to all complaints and shall mark the complaint with this number and the date filed.  All subsequent papers relating to the particular complaint shall be marked with the same docket number and shall be placed in a file (hereinafter called "the docket") with all other papers bearing the same number.

          (7)  Order for Answering and Answer.  The Committee may order that the licensee complained of answer the complaint within ten days.  The Committee shall attach a copy of the complaint to the order for answering or shall describe the acts alleged in the complaint.  A licensee shall respond to an order for answering either personally or through his attorney, in compliance with 243 CMR 1.02(6).  An answer must address the substantive allegations set forth in the complaint or order.

         (8)   Dismissal by Complaint Committee.  Upon receipt of a licensee's answer or at any point during the course of investigation or inquiry into a complaint, the Committee may determine that there is not and will not be sufficient evidence to warrant further proceedings or that the complaint fails to allege misconduct for which a licensee may be sanctioned by the Board.  In such event, the Committee shall close the complaint.  The Committee shall retain a file of all complaints.

        (9)   Board Action Required.  If a licensee fails to answer within the ten-day period or if the Committee determines that there is reason to believe that the acts alleged occurred and constitute a violation for which a licensee may be sanctioned by the Board, the Committee may recommend to the Board that it issue a Statement of Allegations.

       (10)   Disposition by the Board.  The Board shall review each recommendation which the Committee forwards to it within a reasonable time and shall require an adjudicatory hearing if it determines that there is reason to believe that the acts alleged occurred and constitute a violation of any provision of 243 CMR 1.03(5) or M.G.L.

c. 112, § 5.  The Board may take such informal action as it deems a complaint warrants.  If the Board requires an adjudicatory hearing, it may refer the matter to a hearing officer.

        (11)   Suspension Prior to Hearing.  The Board may suspend or refuse to renew a license pending a hearing on the question of revocation if the health, safety or welfare of the public necessitates such summary action.  The procedure for summary suspension is as follows:

             (a)   Immediate and Serious Threat.  If, based upon affidavits or other documentary evidence, the Board determines that a licensee is an immediate and serious threat to the public health, safety, or welfare, the Board may suspend or refuse to renew a license, pending a final hearing on the merits of the Statement of Allegations.  The Board must provide a hearing on the necessity for the summary action within seven days after the suspension.

            (b)   Serious Threat.  If, based upon affidavits or other documentary evidence, the Board determines that a licensee may be a serious threat to the public health, safety or welfare, the Board may order the licensee to file opposing affidavits or other evidence within three business days.  Based upon the evidence before it, the Board may then suspend or refuse to renew the license, pending a final hearing on the merits of the Statement of Allegations.  The Board must provide a hearing on the necessity for the summary action within seven days after the suspension.

    ((12)   Reserved)

     (13)   Assurance of Discontinuance.

        (a)   243 CMR 1.03(13) shall apply to minor violations of 243 CMR 1.03(5), and, unless there is an allegation of patient harm, allegations of drug or alcohol impairment, as determined within the discretion of the Complaint Committee and the Board.

        (b)   At the time that the Complaint Committee determines that a recommendation for a Statement of Allegations is warranted, it may either forward such recommendation to the Board or refer the matter to a conference including a Hearing Officer, a representative of the Disciplinary Unit, and the Respondent.  At the conference, the representative of the Disciplinary Unit and the Respondent may submit to the Hearing Officer a proposed Assurance of Discontinuance, which shall include:

           1.   Recitation of Circumstances giving rise to the Assurance of Discontinuance,

           2.   The Respondent's assurance of discontinuance,

           3.   A sanction and/or the Respondent's agreement to pay the Commonwealth's costs of the investigation, and

           4.   The Respondent's agreement that violation of the Assurance of Discontinuance shall be prima facie evidence of violation of the applicable law, regulations or standards of good and accepted medical practice referenced in the Assurance of Discontinuance.

        (c)   If the Hearing Officer approves the Assurance of Discontinuance, it shall be forwarded to the Board for final approval.

        (d)   If the Hearing Officer and the Board do not approve an Assurance of Discontinuance within 60 days of referral of the matter to the Hearing Officer for conference, or if the Hearing Officer refers the matter back to the Complaint Committee, the Complaint Committee shall forward its recommendation regarding issuance of the Statement of Allegations to the Board.

        (e)   Pursuant to M.G.L. c. 112, § 2, the Board must report an Assurance of Discontinuance to any national data reporting system which provides information on individual physicians.

        (f)   The Respondent may request that the Board not process her case pursuant to 243 CMR 1.03, in which event the Complaint Committee shall forward its recommendation regarding issuance of a Statement of Allegations to the Board.

    (14)   Statutory Reports.  The Complaint Committee, an investigator, and any of the Board's units may also review and investigate any report filed pursuant to M.G.L. c. 111, § 53B, M.G.L. c. 112, §§ 5A through 5I, or 243 CMR 2.00 and 3.00.  If the Board does not issue a Statement of Allegations based upon the statutory report, the statutory report and the records directly related to its review and investigation shall remain confidential.  However, if such report and records are relevant to a resignation pursuant to 243 CMR 1.05(5), then they shall be treated like closed complaint files, under 243 CMR 1.02(8)(c)1.; provided, however, that confidentiality of peer review documents is maintained in accordance with 243 CMR 1.02(8)(c)4. and that confidentiality of documents filed under M.G.L. c. 111, § 53B is maintained to the extent required by law.

     (15)   Discipline When License Has Been Revoked by Operation of Law.  For purposes of administrative economy and convenience, the Board may, in its discretion, defer commencement of formal disciplinary proceedings against a physician whose license has been revoked by operation of Law under the provisions of M.G.L. c. 112, § 2 or through application of 243 CMR 2.06(2).  Such deferral may be until such time as the physician takes action to complete the renewal process.  The Board shall notify the physician of its intent to defer action under 243 CMR 1.03(15); if the physician files a written objection within 60 days by certified, return-receipt mail, the Board shall not defer commencement of said proceeding.  Nothing herein shall be construed to bar the Board from commencing disciplinary proceedings at any time, including any proceedings which may or may not have previously been deferred.

     (16)   Stale Matters.  Except where the Complaint Committee or the Board determines otherwise for good cause, the Board shall not entertain any complaint arising out of acts or omissions occurring more than six years prior to the date the complaint is filed with the Board.

 

1.04:    Adjudicatory Hearing.

After the Board issues a Statement of Allegations, the Board shall conduct all hearings in accordance with 801 CMR 1.00:  Standard Adjudicatory Rules of Practice and Procedure.

 

1.05:    Final Decision and Order and Miscellaneous Provisions.

      (1)   In General.  Every Final Decision and Order of the Board requires the concurrence of at least four members, or of a majority of the Board if it has more than one vacancy.  If the Hearing Officer is a member of the Board, her vote counts in the event the Board is not otherwise able to reach a final decision.

     (2)   Sanctions.  In disposition of disciplinary charges brought by the Board, the Board may revoke, suspend, or cancel the certificate of registration, or reprimand, censure, impose a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each classification of violation, require the performance of up to 100 hours of public service, in a manner and at a time and place to be determined by the Board, require a course of education or training or otherwise discipline or limit the practice of the physician.  A reprimand is a severe censure.

     (3)   Nature and Effect, Generally.  Any order of the Board which imposes a sanction as a result of a disciplinary action is effective immediately, unless the Board orders otherwise.

        (a)   Suspension.  A licensee whose certificate is suspended for a period of time is automatically reinstated upon expiration of the suspension period.

        (b)   Revocation.  The cancellation or revocation of a certificate of registration is effective for at least five years, unless the Board orders otherwise.  Reinstatement thereafter may be granted or denied in the Board's discretion.  A cancellation or revocation is lifted only through a petition for reinstatement.

     (4)   Reinstatement.  A person previously registered by the Board may apply for reinstatement of his/her application no sooner than five years after revocation, unless the Board orders otherwise.  An application for reinstatement is addressed to the Board's discretion, must be made in the form the Board prescribes, must be filed in original with ten copies, and will be granted only if the Board determines that doing so would advance the public interest.  If the Board denies a petition for reinstatement, the Respondent shall not re-petition for reinstatement until at least two years after the date of denial, unless the Board orders otherwise.

     (5) Resignation.

        (a) A licensee who is named in a complaint or who is subject to an investigation by the Board or who is the respondent in a disciplinary action may submit his/her resignation by delivering to the Board a writing stating that: he/she desires to resign; his/her resignation is tendered voluntarily; he/she realizes that resignation is a final act which deprives a person of all privileges of registration and is not subject to reconsideration or judicial review; and that the licensee is not currently licensed to practice in any other state or jurisdiction, will make no attempt to gain licensure elsewhere, or will resign any other licenses contemporaneously with his/her resignation in the Commonwealth.

        (b) If a complaint, investigation, or Statement of Allegations arises solely out of a disciplinary action in another jurisdiction, within the meaning of 243 CMR 1.03(5)(a)12., then the registrant may submit a resignation pursuant to 243 CMR 1.05(5)(a), but need not make any representation regarding licensure status in other jurisdictions, is permitted to gain licensure elsewhere, and need not resign any other licenses contemporaneously with the resignation.

        (c) The Board is not obligated to accept a resignation tendered pursuant to 243 CMR 1.05. The acceptance of such a resignation is within the discretion of the Board, and is a Final Decision and Order subject to a vote of the Board.

     (6) Unauthorized Medical Practice. The Board shall refer to the appropriate District Attorney or other appropriate law enforcement agency any incidents of unauthorized medical practice which comes to its attention, as required by M.G.L.  c. 112, § 5.

     (7) Imposition of Restrictions. Consistent with 243 CMR 1.00 and M.G.L. c. 30A or otherwise by agreement with the licensee, the Board may impose restrictions to prohibit a licensee from performing certain medical procedures, or from performing certain medical procedures except under certain conditions, if the Board determines that:

        (a) the licensee has engaged in a pattern or practice which calls into question her competence to perform such medical procedures, or

        (b) the restrictions are otherwise warranted by the public health, safety and welfare.

 

REGULATORY AUTHORITY

     243 CMR 1.00:  M.G.L. c. 13, § 10; c. 112, §§  2 through 9B.

 

2.00:    THE PRACTICE OF MEDICINE

Section

2.01: Introduction Provisions

2.02: Licensure Provisions

2.03: Licensure of Graduates of Foreign Medical Schools and

        Graduates of Fifth Pathway Programs

2.04: Application Provisions

2.05: Fees

2.06: Renewal Provisions

2.07: General Provisions Governing the Practice of Medicine

2.08: Physician Assistants

2.09: Administrative Duties of the Board

2.10: Supervision of Nurses Engaged in Prescriptive Practice

2.11: Ownership Interest in Facilities Providing Physical Therapy

         Services

 

2.01:    Introductory Provisions

      (1) Purpose. 243 CMR 2.00 are the Board of Registration in Medicine's judgments concerning the practice of medicine.  Their purpose is to prescribe substantive standards governing the practice of medicine which will promote the public health, welfare, and safety and inform physicians of the Board's expectations and requirements. The Board presumes that every physician in the Commonwealth has notice of 243 CMR 2.00 and expects that she will practice medicine in accordance with them.

     (2) Authority. The Board adopts these regulations under the authority of M.G.L. c. 13, §§  9B, 10 and 11, c. 112, §§  2 through 8, 9A through 12R,  §§ 61 through 65, § 88, c. 30A, § 2, and St. 1977, c. 252.

     (3) Citation. The name of these regulations is "Massachusetts Regulations Governing the Practice of Medicine," and persons citing them may use the following form: Mass. Regs. Governing Practice of Medicine, 243 CMR 2.00.

     (4) Definitions. For the purposes of 243 CMR 2.00, the terms listed below have the following meanings:

 

     A.C.G.M.E. means the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education. Graduates of Foreign Medical Schools means graduates of medical schools legally chartered in a sovereign state other than the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or Canada.

     A.M.A. means the American Medical Association.

     A.O.A. means the American Osteopathic Association.

     Accredited Canadian post-graduate medical training means training which has been accredited by the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, the College of Family Physicians of Canada, or the Federation of Medical Licensing Authorities of Canada.

     Adjudicatory hearing means a hearing conducted in accordance with M.G.L. c. 30A and with the "Procedure for Complaints, Investigations and Adjudicatory Proceedings" 243 CMR 1.00.

     Board means the Board of Registration in Medicine established by M.G.L. c. 13, §10.

     E.C.F.M.G. means Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates.

     Fifth pathway means a program of medical education which meets the following requirements:

        (a) Completion of two years of pre-medical education in a college or university of the United States.

        (b) Completion of all the formal requirements for the degree corresponding to doctor of medicine except internship and social service in a medical school outside the United States which is recognized by the World Health Organization.

        (c) Completion of one academic year of supervised clinical training sponsored by an approved medical school in the United States or Canada.

        (d) Completion of one year of graduate medical education in a program approved by the Liaison Committee on Graduate Medical Education of the American Medical Association.

     FLEX means the Federation Licensing Examination.

     Foreign medical school means a legally chartered medical school in a sovereign state other than the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or Canada.

     Health care facility means a hospital or other institution of the commonwealth, or of a county or of a municipality within it; a hospital or clinic duly licensed or approved by the Department of Public Health; and an out-patient clinic operated by the Department of Mental Health.

     License means a certificate of registration which the Board issues to a person pursuant to the requirements of M.G.L. c. 112, §§  2, 9, and 9B and which authorizes the person to engage in the practice of medicine. There are four categories of licenses: full, limited, temporary, and restricted. A full license entitles a licensee to practice medicine as an independent practitioner free from specific limitations on her practice. Any other category of license limits a licensee's practice according to the provisions of 243 CMR 2.00.

     M.C.C.O.E. means the Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination.

     Majority vote (of the Board) means a vote of a majority of the members of the Board present and voting at a Board meeting.  For a definition of "majority vote of the Board" in the context of a disciplinary proceeding before the Board, see the "Procedure for Complaints, Investigations and Adjudicatory Proceedings" 243 CMR 1.00.

     Medical school means a legally chartered medical school in any jurisdiction.

     Medical student means a person who has credibly completed not less than two years of study in a legally chartered medical school.

     N.B.M.E. means the National Board of Medical Examiners.

     Person means an individual and does not mean an association of individuals or a legal entity.

     Physician assistant means a person who is a graduate of a program approved by the Board of Approval and Certification of Physician Assistant Programs within the Department of Public Health established by M.G.L. c. 112, § 9F.

     The Practice of Medicine: the following conduct, the purpose or reasonably foreseeable effect of which is to encourage the reliance of another person upon an individual's knowledge or skill in the maintenance of human health by the prevention, alleviation, cure of disease and involving or reasonably thought to involve an assumption of responsibility for the other person's physical or mental well being: diagnosis, treatment, use of instruments or other devices, or the prescription or administration of drugs for the relief of diseases or adverse physical or mental conditions. A person who holds himself out to the public as a "physician" or "surgeon," or with the initials "M.D." or "D.O." in connection with his name, and who also assumes responsibility for another person's physical or mental well being, is engaged in the practice of medicine. The practice of medicine does not mean conduct of the type described above lawfully engaged in by persons licensed by other boards of registration with authority to regulate such conduct; nor does it mean assistance rendered in emergency situations by persons other than licensees.

     Specialty board means a specialty board recognized by the American Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association.

     U.S.M.L.E. means the United States Medical Licensing Examination.

     (5) Number. Words in 243 CMR 2.00 importing the singular include the plural, and words in these regulations importing the plural include the singular.

     (6) Gender of Pronouns. Pronouns indicating gender are used indiscriminately in these regulations to refer to a person whose sex is immaterial.

     (7) Submission of Papers. The Board's official mailing address is 10 West St. Boston, Massachusetts 02111. Persons wishing to file papers with the Board shall do so by delivering them in hand or through the mail to this address, unless the Board orders otherwise.

     (8) Availability of Forms. The Board will make available upon request any forms prepared in accordance with 243 CMR 2.00.

     (9) Computation of Time. Any period of time specified in 243 CMR 2.00 includes every calendar day, whether or not the office of the Board is open on that day, except that, when the last day of the period falls on a day when the Board's office is closed, the period ends instead on the next day on which the office is open.

     (10) Submission of Original Documents. If an individual submits both an original document and a photocopy of it to the Board, the Board will return the original document. The Board will accept an affidavit in lieu of original documents only in extraordinary circumstances and only in the Board's discretion. A person who wishes to submit an original document or photocopy written in a foreign language must also submit a notarized translation into English of the documents or copy prepared by a translation service approved by the Board.

     (11) Conduct Prior to and During an Examination. Applicants who engage in the conduct described below shall have their test materials confiscated, shall be denied permission to complete the examination and shall be required to leave the examination room.

        (a) Removing test materials from the examination room; reproducing in any manner or aiding in the reproduction of test materials; selling, distributing, buying or having unauthorized possession of test materials;

        (b) Communicating with any other examine during the exam; copying answers or permitting answers to be copied; having in one's possession, during the examination, any material other than the examination materials; failure to obey instructions to stop working and/or starting an examination prior to being authorized to do so;

        (c) Falsifying or misrepresenting educational credentials or other information required for admission to the exam; having another person take the exam on one's behalf.

     (12) Public Records and Personal Data. Documentary information obtained by the Board concerning a licensee is either a public record, as defined by M.G.L. c. 4, § 7, clause 26, or personal data, as defined by M.G.L. c. 66A. The Board may not disclose personal data unless disclosure is authorized by statute or otherwise in accordance with Mass. Gen. Laws Ann.  c. 66A, § 2(c).

        (a) Documentary information which is a public record includes the following:

           1. A licensee's name, business address, and license number.

           2. A licensee's educational and professional training and experience.

        (b) Documentary information which is personal data includes the following:

           1. A licensee's age, marital status, and race.

           2. A licensee's home address

           3. Other similar personal details.

 

2.02:    Licensure Provisions

      (1) Procedure for Obtaining a Full License for Graduates of Medical Schools in the United States, Canada and Puerto Rico.  In order to qualify for a full medical license, an applicant shall meet the following requirements in addition to other requirements for licensure as set forth in the Board's regulations and M.G.L. c. 112.

        (a) Pre-medical Education. An applicant shall have completed a minimum of two or more academic years at a legally chartered college or university. Such pre-medical training shall include courses in biology, inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry and physics, or their equivalent as determined by the Board.

        (b) Medical Education. An applicant shall have completed and attended for four academic years of instruction, of not less than 32 weeks in each academic year, or courses which in the opinion of the Board are equivalent thereto, in one or more legally chartered medical schools, and have received the degree of doctor of medicine, or its equivalent.

        (c) Additional Requirements. In addition to the requirements set forth in 243 CMR 2.02(1)(a) and (b), an applicant for full licensure shall:

           1. submit to the Board satisfactory proof of good moral character, as determined by the Board; and

           2. fulfill the examination requirements for licensure as set forth in 243 CMR 2.02(2); and

           3. complete one year of A.C.G.M.E. approved or accredited Canadian post-graduate medical training; and

           4. submit to the Board a completed application form, any additional information which the Board requests and a fee to be determined annually by the commissioner of administration under M.G.L. c. 7, § 3B.

        (d) If the Board determines that an applicant is qualified, such applicant will be registered as a licensed physician and entitled to a certificate in testimony thereof signed by the chairman and secretary.

     (2) Examination Requirements. An applicant may fulfill the examination requirements for licensure by submitting evidence of having achieved a score acceptable to the Board on the licensing examinations listed at 243 CMR 2.02(2)(a). An applicant must also meet all of the requirements for licensure as set forth in the Board's regulations and M.G.L. c. 112.

        (a) Licensing Examinations.

           1. Both Component 1 and Component 2 of the FLEX; or

           2. Part I, Part II and Part m of the examination of the

               N.B.M.E.; or

           3. All parts of the examination of the National Board of

               Examiners for Osteopathic Physicians and Surgeons of the

              A.O.A.; or

           4. All parts of the M.C.C.Q.E.; or

           5. Individual state examinations given prior to June 19, 1970, which are satisfactory to the Board; or

6. Step 1, Step 2 and Step 3 of the U.S.M.L.E.; or 7. Part I of the examination of the N.B.M.E. or Step 1 of the U.S.M.L.E., and Part II of the examination of the N.B.M.E. or Step 2 of the U.S.M.L.E., and Part m of the examination of the N.B.M.E. or Step 3 of the U.S.M.L.E.; or 8. Component 1 of the FLEX and Step 3 of the U.S.M.L.E.; or 9. Component 2 of the FLEX and:

              a. Part I and Part II of the examination of the

                  N.B.M.E.; or

              b. Step 1 and Step 2 of the U.S.M.L.E.; or

              c. Part I of the examination of the N.B.M.E. and Step 2 of the U.S.M.L.E.; or

 d. Step 1 of the U.S.M.L.E. and Part u of the examination of the N.B.M.E.

        (b) The examination combinations listed at 243 CMR 2.02(2)(a)7., 243 CMR 2.02(2)(a)8. and 243 CMR 2.02(2)(a)9.  will be accepted for purposes of fulfilling the examination requirements for licensure only if completed prior to January 1, 2000.

        (c) Diplomates of the N.B.M.E. and the National Board of Osteopathic Medical Examiners who arc applying for licensure based on diplomate status must submit proof of certification.

        (d) An applicant for licensure in Massachusetts who is licensed in another state or states must fulfill the examination requirements for licensure listed at 243 CMR 2.02(2). Such an applicant must also meet all of the requirements for licensure as set forth in the Board's regulations and M.G.L. c. 112.

        (e) The Board may issue a full license to a diplomate of a specialty board recognized by the American Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association who is unable to submit evidence of having achieved scores acceptable to the Board on one of the examinations listed in 243 CMR 2.02(a). If the Board determines that such an applicant's qualifications and professional training indicate that the Board should restrict his practice, the Board may issue a full license restricted pursuant to 243 CMR 2.02(6).

     (3) FLEX Requirements. The application procedure for the FLEX examination in Massachusetts is the following:

        (a) In order to apply to take both components or either component of the FLEX, an applicant must submit a completed application to the Board no later than 90 d ays prior to the date of examination. The Board shall then make a determination regarding an applicant's qualifications to take both components or either component of the FLEX pursuant to the following schedule:

           1. An applicant may take Component 1 of the FLEX if she has graduated from medical school by the application deadline and is otherwise qualified. Applicants who are in their last year in a legally chartered medical school in the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or Canada may take Component 1 if they have graduated from medical school by the date of the exam.

           2. An applicant may take Component 2 of the FLEX if the applicant has passed Component 1, or the applicant may take both components of the FLEX in one sitting. Under both circumstances, the applicant must have graduated from medical school, successfully completed one year of A.C.G.M.E. accredited post-graduate training, and must be otherwise qualified. Applicants may take Component 2 during the first year of A.C.G.M.E. accredited post-graduate training if their training is successfully completed by August 1st of the year in which the exam is given. In the case of sub-specialty clinical fellowship programs, the Board may accept post-graduate training in a hospital that has an A.C.G.M.E.-approved program in the parent specialty. The Board may accept accredited Canadian post-graduate medical training.

           3. In lieu of post-graduate training, the Board may accept teaching experience consisting of a faculty appointment at or above the assistant professor level at a medical school accredited by the Liaison Committee on Medical Education if the majority of the teaching experience documented is clinical teaching with supporting evidence of special honors or awards which the applicant has achieved, and articles which the applicant has published in reputable medical journals or medical textbooks.

        (b) The passing score for each component is 75.

        (c) Within 21 days after the Board has received notification of the FLEX results, the Board shall notify the applicants in writing of their scores. Prior verbal notification of a FLEX score will not be given.

        (d) Beginning with the June 1985 examination, an applicant who has received the passing score of 75 of higher on Component 1 and 2 has passed the licensure examination.  Prior to the June 1985 examination, an applicant who has completed the FLEX in one sitting and has received a passing grade of a FLEX weighted average of 75% or higher has passed the licensure examination.

        (e) An applicant may be examined by FLEX in another jurisdiction and apply for licensure in Massachusetts. An applicant who applies on the basis of an examination taken in June 1985 or later must have received a passing score of 75 or higher on each of the two components and be otherwise qualified. An applicant who applies on the basis of an examination taken prior to June 1985 must have taken the FLEX in one sitting, must have received a grade of a FLEX weighted average of 75% or higher and be otherwise qualified.

        (f) As a condition of licensure, the Board may require any applicant who has failed the FLEX on three or more occasions to present evidence of further education, training, or other indications which, in the opinion of the Board, addresses the areas of deficiency.

     (4) U.S.M.L.E. Step 3 Requirements. The U.S.M.L.E. consists of Step 1, 2 and 3. The application procedure for U.S.M.L.E. Step 3 in Massachusetts is the following:

        (a) In order to apply to take Step 3, an applicant must submit a completed application to the Board no later than 90 days prior to the date of examination. The Board shall then make a determination regarding an applicant's qualifications to take Step 3 pursuant to the following schedule:

           1. An applicant may take Step 3 of the U.S.M.L.E. if she has graduated from medical school by the application deadline, passed Step 1 and Step 2, successfully completed one year of A.C.G.M.E. accredited post-graduate training in the United States, and is otherwise qualified. Applicant may take Step 3 during the first year of A.C.G.M.E. accredited post-graduate training if such training is successfully completed by August 1st of the year in which Step 3 is given. In the case of sub-specialty clinical fellowship programs, the Board may accept post-graduate training in a hospital that has an A.C.G.M.E.-approved program in the parent specialty. The Board may accept accredited Canadian post-graduate medical training.  In lieu of post-graduate training, the Board may accept teaching experience consisting of a faculty appointment at or above the assistant professor level l at a medical school accredited by the Liaison Committee on Medical Education if the majority of the teaching experience documented is clinical teaching with supporting evidence of special honors or awards which the applicant has achieved, and articles which the applicant has published in reputable medical journals or medical textbooks.

        (b) The passing score for Step 3 is 75.

        (c) Within 21 days after the Board has received notification of the Step 3 results, the Board shall notify the applicants in writing of their scores. Prior verbal notification of a Step 3 score will not be given.

        (d) As a condition of licensure, the Board may require any applicant who has failed Step 3 more than six times to present evidence of further education, training or other indicia which, in the opinion of the Board, addresses the areas of deficiency.

     (5) Completion of U.S.M.L.E. examination sequence. An applicant must achieve scores acceptable to the Board on Step 1, Step 2 and Step 3 of the U.S.M.E. within a seven year period in order to fulfill the examination requirements for licensure. This seven year period begins when an applicant receives notice of passing her first Step, either Step I or Step 2. The Board will not consider evidence of having achieved scores acceptable to the Board on Part I, Part II and Part III of the examination of the N.B.M.E. or on Component 1 and Component 2 for purposes of 243 CMR 2.02(5).

     (6) Restricted Licensure. If the Board determines that an applicant's qualifications and professional training indicate that the Board should restrict his practice, the Board may, after opportunity for a hearing, issue a full license restricted to any of the following:

        (a) A specialty.

        (b) Specified procedures within the specialty in which the applicant is a diplomate.

        (c) A specified health care facility in which the applicant will practice under the supervision of a fully licensed physician.

        (d) In any other manner deemed appropriate by the Board based on the Board's assessment of the applicant's qualifications and professional training.

     (7) (Specialty Licensure. RESERVED)

     (8) Limited Licensure. A limited license enables a person to complete her medical training. The Board issues a limited license to a person who has received an appointment as an intern, fellow, or medical officer at health care facility or in a training program approved by the Board.

     (9) Procedure for Issuing a Limited License. The procedure for issuing a limited license is the following:

        (a) An applicant submits to the Board a completed application form and any additional information which the Board requests.

        (b) If the Board determines that the applicant is qualified, it shall issue a limited license to the applicant.

     (10) General Provisions Governing Limited licensure. The following provisions govern a limited license:

        (a) A limited license authorizes a limited licensee to practice medicine only in the training program or at the health care facility designated on the limited license or at the facility's approved affiliates. A limited licensee may practice medicine only under the supervision of a full licensee.

        (b) A limited licensee may practice outside the health care facility designated on the license, but only for the treatment of persons accepted by the design ated health care facility as patients and only under the supervision of one of the designated health care facility's medial officers who is a full licensee.

        (c) The Board will not issue more than one limited license to a person at a time. In the event that a limited licensee terminates his appointment at a health care facility or his participation in a training program prior to the limited license's expiration date, the limited licensee shall submit to the Board a written notice of termination which sets forth the reasons for the termination and is signed by the superintendent or the administrator of the health care facility or training program.

     (11) Duration of a Limited license.

        (a) A limited license expires at the end of each academic year, unless the licensee opts, at least 30 days prior to the expiration date, for annual issuance of a new conditional limited license and the new conditional limited license is deemed issued in accordance with 243 CMR 2.02(11)(b). The new conditional license will be issued in accordance with 243 CMR 2.02(11)(b) for up to five years or for the duration of a specific and single hospital (including its approved affiliations) training program, whichever ends first. Based upon educational qualification or other factors deemed relevant by the Board, the Board may, in its discretion, grant a limited license for a time period shorter than one year. The Board may issue limited licenses to a person for a maximum period of five years.  The Board may issued a limited license for one year after the five year period to permit a limited licensee to engage in extended training, subject to review by the Board, or to take an examination for licensure. However, a limited license may be issued after a six year period only under extraordinary circumstances and only by a vote of a majority of the Board.

        (b) A conditional limited license automatically terminates at the end of each academic year of training, unless the Board receives, prior to 30 days before such annual termination date, notification from the licensee and health care facility that they opt for issuance of a new conditional limited license. Such notification shall take the following form:

           1. Written confirmation from the applicant, under the pains and penalties of perjury, that the applicant, since the time that the applicant last filled the later of a limited license application or previous confirmation under 243 CMR 2.02(11) with the Board, has not:

              a. had any medical malpractice claims filed;

              b. been a defendant in a criminal proceeding, other than minor traffic offenses;

              c. been the subject of any past or pending

                 disciplinary action, as defined by 243 CMR 3.02.

  d. had any change in the right to possess, dispense or prescribe controlled                

      substances;

e. withdrawn an application for medical licensure or been denied a medical  

    license for any reason;

f. had any medical or organic illness impairing the ability to practice medicine or

              g. been impaired by or dependent upon alcohol or drugs.

 

           2.   Written confirmation from the superintendent or administrator of the health care facility or graduate training that the licensee is in good standing and in the same training program for the next year as that listed on the original limited licensure application.

           3.   Confirmation, under the pains and penalties of perjury from the applicant, that the licensee has provided such further information as the Board, as a condition of limited licensure, may require of any new limited license applicant.

           4.   Payment of the required licensure or application fee on an annual basis or such other basis specified by the Board.

        (c)   The license applicant or licensee is under a continuing duty to assure that the information provided is updated and accurate during the time when the Board is considering such information. Notwithstanding 243 CMR 2.07(6), an applicant or licensee must provide the Board with updated and accurate information immediately upon the applicant's or licensee's knowledge of same.

        (d)   The Board may, in its discretion, upon review of the confirmations and information provided under 243 CMR 2.02(11)(b), issue a new conditional limited license, under the same limited license number, for another academic year.

        (e)   The Board's issuance of any limited license is conditioned upon adherence to the above and all other statutory and regulatory requirements, and it is the responsibility of the individual licensee to assure such compliance.  Nothing herein shall limit the Board's authority to revoke a limited registration "at any time" in accordance with M.G.L. c. 112, § 9 and M.G.L. c. 30A.  Nothing herein shall limit the Board, in its discretion, from determining that a new limited license may issue with an appropriate restriction on the scope of practice or subject to probationary conditions.  A summary suspension of a currently valid limited license shall be issued in accordance with 243 CMR 1.03(11); automatic termination of a conditional limited license, if the licensee fails to or is unable to provide notification, confirmations and information required under 243 CMR 2.02(11)(b), is not a refusal to renew a license under 243 CMR 1.03(11) and therefore not subject to 243 CMR 1.03(11).